A Moveable Feast question

It's dire. But then, that's what you get when you're a Nobel prize winner and someone you love publishes your book after you're dead. Best not to change even the embarrassing stuff.

I think these critiques are moot because the example did not complete the sentence, which by its end made the first part clear. It is true that Hemingway often bent English usage, but Moveable Feast is a book of brilliant clarity and prose style. He was a writer that talked about writing in a way that, as a very young man, I could understand though I had no thought then of ever writing anything. He did not invent the writing method he worked to perfect, but he recognized what the rules were and tried to explain them to anyone that cared to listen.

Robertson wrote: "Chapter 14 titled Evan Shipman at The Lilas; it reads "From the day I had found Sylvia Beach's library I had read all of Turgenev, what had been published in English"
Is it me or does this sound "out of grammar tune?"

The memoir was published posthumously from Hemingway's notes and contemporaneous journals he kept during the Paris years. He never had the chance to edit the manuscript.

A phrase like "what had been published" was probably lifted straight from a journal entry Hemingway wrote after a late night of carousing and heavy drinking and may have been common vernacular in British/European usage at the time. (Far worse is true even today.) Even the most educated people, Brits in particular, know proper English, but take liberties with it to fit in socially. There are many regional dialects of Brit/English--Manchester, Liverpool, Brighton, Cockney, etc. It will spin your head trying to keep up.

It looks weird because he's used a comma to designate a parenthetical clause, where usually you'd use a comma to go on to say "which had been published in English", but he means all the Turgenev works that have been published in English.

A-level in English paying off here!